Biology Model question paper UP TGT Sample KVS PGT KVS 2022

Every year different type of state public Commission, and KVS conduct written examination for the recruitment of trend Graduate teacher TGT and Post graduate Teachers. now brought few most important Questions which were asked in previous year examination. All those candidates who filled application form UP TGT PGT Vacancy, UPPSC Post graduate lecturer posts , KVS TGT PGT bharti now they can download Biology subject question paper from here without downloading any PDF file. We have uploaded UP TGT exam Question Paper 2013, 2014, 2015, 2019, KVS Papers Biology in Hindi English in Image File and text file. Hope following Biology Model question paper will be helpful in the preparation of UP TGT Upcoming examination of Ucchatar shiksha ayog , UPHESC . we will upload more Sample question paper for upcoming KVS PGT, KVS TGT examination . so please subscribed your emails for receiving all update in your email ID.
Following question paper was asked IN FCI Assistant grade III examination 2022 for the recruitment of Assistant grade 3 Technical Posts.  Question paper contains 120 Question from Bio (Jeev Vigyan) Subject.
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 11. The placentation of composite is:
(1) Marginal    (3) Axile    (2) Parietal    (4) Basal

12. A distinct monocot character shown by the flowers of liliaceae is:
(1) Hypogynous flower    (2) Actinomorphic flower
(3) Trimerous flower        (4) Bisexual flower

13. When a cell is fully turgid which one of the following is zero:
(1) Turgor Pressure    (2) Wall pressure
(3) Diffusion pressure deficit    (4) Osmotic pressure

14. The coleoptile in grass seedling is:
(1) Radicle    (2) Plumule
(3) Cotyledon    4) Sheath around emerging leaf

15. One of these is polymorphic and digenetic:
(1) Noctiluca
(3) Plasmodium
(2) Leishmania (4) Trvpanosoma

16. One of the following is not a mammal:
(1) Anteater    (3) Heloderma
(2) Echidna    (4) Dolphin

17. Which of the following is not a correctly matched set:
(1) Flame cell-flatworm    (2) Nematocyst-Coelenterata
(3) Segmentation-MolluSca    (4) Pharyngeal gill slit-Chordata

18. Chief function of contractile vacuole is:
(1) Osmoregulation    (3) Excretion
(2) Digestion        (4) Respiration

19. Which one of the following sets of organs is of ectodermal origin in frog?
(1) Epidermis, mucous glands and optic vesicle  
(2) Brain, aorta and thyroid gland
(3) Pharynx, spinal cord and blood cell
(4) Heart, cranial nerves and liver

20. Precocious metamorphosis can be induced in frog tadpole by treating with:
(1) Growth Hormone (GH)
(2) Adrenocortico Tropic Hormone (ACTH)
(3) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
(4) Thyroxine Hormone (TH)

21. Which stage of Plasmodium is infective to man:
(1) Merozoite         (2) Schizont
(3) Spotozoite         (4) Ookinete

22. Body cavity ofyj is called:
(1) Hydrocoel        (3) Coelom
(2) Haemocoel        (4) Coelenteron

23. Syncytial epidermis is found in:
(1) Ascaris        (3) Flatworm
(2) Earthworm        (4) None of these

24. Anal cerci are found:
(1) Only in male Ascaris        (2) Only in male cockroach
(3) Only in female cockroach        (4) Both in male and female cockroach

25. Inheritance of ABO blood group is an example of:
(1) Multiple allelism        (2) Dominance
(3) Incomplete dominance    (4) Mutation

26. Which has sweet taste, but is not a sugar:
(1) Saccharine        (2) Lactose
(3) Protein        (4) Starch

27. BMR is regulated by:
(1) Adrenalin        (2) Thyroxine
(3) Growth hormone    (4) Insulin

28. Pancreas has:
(1) Only endocrine cells
(2) Only one type of cell, the same functioning both in an exocrine and endocrine
(3) Two types of cells—exocrine and endocrine
(4) Only exocrine cells

29. In the unfertilized egg, inactivated NMD kinase is made active only:
(1) When capacitation and contact between the gametes have been established
(2) After the penetration of the sperm head —into the vicinity of the egg plasma membrane
(3) When the second polar body of the egg has been discharged
(4) When the amphlimixis is over

30. Young fruits are green but develop brilliant shade of colour towards ripening because:
(1) Amount of sugar increases in them
(2) Amount of organic acids decreases in them
(3) Chloroplasts are degraded to carotenes and xanthophylls
(4) Of ageing

31. Which of the following is true for most genes:
(1) A gene is a segment of DNA that contains the instnjctions for making a particular protein
(2) A gene is a segment of DNA that contains the instructions for making a particular RNA
(3) A gene is a region of DNA that controls a discrete hereditary characteristic of an organism
(4) All of the above

32. The “Central Dogma” of protein synthesis can be summed up as follows:
(1) DNA — transcription —* RNA —* translation
(2) DNA —* translation —* RNA —> transcription
(3) DNA —f RNA — transcription —* translation
(4) DNA —* RNA — translation —* transcription

33. Telomeres are:
(1) Knots in the center of the chromosome that seem to tie the chromatids together
(2) Starting points for DNA replication
(3) Molecules that bring new nucleotides to the replicating DNA strand
(4) Sequences of nucleotides found at ends of chromosomes

34. Islets of Langerhans are found in:
(1) Australia         (2) Pancreas
(3) Ovary         (4) Liver

35. Corpus callosum is found in the brain of:
(1) Frog         (2) Rabbit
(3) Cockroach         (4) Snake

36. The specific function of liver is:
(1) Excretion        (2) Digestion
(3) Histolysis        (4) Glycogenesis and glycogenolysis

37. Antidiuretjc hormone (ADH) is:
(1) Gastrin        (2) Pancreozymin
(3) Testosterone     (4) Vasspressin

38. Pegging down in ground nut is the process of:
(1) Elongation of style
(2) Elongation of areal roots
(3) Development of Brace roots
(4) Pressing pegs in soil to support the plant

39. ‘Pusa Naveen’ is a variety of:
 (1) Bottle gourd        (2) Sponge gourd
(3) Bitter gourd        (4) Musk-melon

40  The family of water melon is:
(1) Cruciferae            (2) Malvaceae
(3) Leguminosae         (4) Cucurbitaceous

41. Which among the following conditions are favourable 41. for cyclic photophosphorylation
(1) Aerobic condition only
(2) Aerobic and low light intensity
(3) Aerobic and optimum light
(4) Anaerobic and low light intensity

42. The number of carbon atom in the acceptor compound 42. of carbon—dioxide in C3 plants is:
(1)2                 (2)3
(3)4                 (4)5

43. Calvin cycle occurs in:
(1) Cytoplasm            (2) Peroxisome
(3) Chloroplast         (4) Mitochondria

44. The number of oxygen molecules released per light quanta during light reaction is:
(1) Quantum yield        (2) Quantum requirement
(3) Quantasome        (4) Photosynthetic yield

45. Genetic recombination takes place during:
(1) Prophase of meiotic division—I
(2) Metaphase of meiotic division—Il
(3) Prophase of melotic division—Il
(4) Metaphase of meiotic division—I

46. In CAM plants the initial carbondioxide acceptor is:
(1) Phosphoglyceric acid
(2) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid
(3) Ribulose 1,5 biphosphate
(4) Malic acid

47. Which among the following pigment is called as accessory pigments?
 (1) Carotene            (2) Xanthophyll
 (3) Phycobilins        (4) All the above

48. C4 pathway is shown by:
(1) Sugar cane            (2) Sunflower
(3) Pea                 (4) Rice

49. The universal hydrogen acceptor is:
(1) NADP            (2) ATP
(3) CO—A            (4) FMN

50. Algae and other submerged plants in water float during day time and sink at night, because:
(1) They come upto enjoy some time
(2) They lose weight at night
(3) They become byont due to accumulation of 02 as a result of photosynthesis

51. The electron microscope has been particularly useful in studying bacteria, because:
(1) Electrons can penetrate tough bacterial cell walls
(2) Bacteria are so small
(3) Bacteria move so quickly they are hard to photograph
(4) With few organelles present, bacteria are distinguished by differences in individual

52. Which of the following clues would tell you whether a cell is prokaryotic or eukaryotic:
(1) The presence or absence of a rigid cell wall
(2) Whether or not the cell is partitioned by internal membranes
(3) The presence or absence of ribosomes
(4) Whether or not the cell carries out cellular metabolism

53. Which pigment is water soluble?
(1) Chlorophyll (3) Anthocyanin    (2) Carotene (4) Xanthophyll

54. “Kranz Anatomy” is found in:
(1) Flower (2) Seed    (3) Leaves (4) Stem

55. The family in which many plants are C4 type:
(1) Malvaceae    (3) Crucifereae    (2) Solanaceae    (4) Gramineae

56. The geometrical device that helps to find out all the possible combination of male and female gametes is called:
(1) Punnete square (3) Mendal square
(2) Bateson square (4) Morgan square

57. Necrosis, or death of tissue particularly leaf tissue, is due to the deficiency of:
(1) N, K, S
(2) N, K, Mg and Fe
(3) Mn, Zn and Mo
(4) Ca, Mg, Cu and K

58. Somaclones are obtained by:
(1) Genetic engineering    (2) Tissue culture
(3) Plant breeding        (4) Irradiation

59. Which one of the following is correct? The enzyme peptidyl transferase is involved in::
 (1) DNA replication         (3) Genomic imprinting
(2) RNA transcription     (4) Protein translation

60. When a heterozygous offspring is crossed with homozygous recessive parents, it is called:
(1) Test cross    (2) Reciprocal cross    (3) Monohybrid cross (4) Dihybrid cross

61. The process of removing stamens from the flower during hybridization is called:
(1) Caping    (3) Crossing
(2) Selfing    (4) Emasculation

62. Which of the followings is absent in the xylem of gymnosperms?
(1) Trachiecjs        3) Fibers    (2) Parenchyma (4) Vessels

63. Which of the following is called living fossil?
(1) Ephedra    (3) Cycas     (2) Pinus    (4) Ginko

64. Special type of root inhabited by microbes in cycas is called:
(1) Adventitious root        (2) Microbial root
(3) N2 fixing root         (4) Coralloid root

65. During metaphase mitosis chromosome:
(1) Undergo coiling        3) Under coiling
(2) Line up at the equator    (4) Break and disintegrate

66. During cell division in apical meristem, the nuclear membrane appears in:
(1) Metaphase (3) Anaphase    (2) Telophase (4) Cytokinesis

67. The site of protein synthesis is:
(1) At the nuclear membrane        (2) At ribosomes
(3) Near microfilaments        (4) Always at a golgi body

68. Which of the following is correctly matches an organelle with its function:
(1) Mitochondrion. . photosynthesis
(2) Nucleus cellular respiration
(3) Ribosome. manufacture of lipids
(4) Central vacuole. . storage

69. A cell has mitochondria, ribosomes, smooth and rough ER, and other parts. Based on this information, it could not be:
(1) A cell from a pine tree (2) A grasshopper cell
(3) A yeast (fungus) cell (4) A bacterium

70. Cell fractionation is the most appropriate procedure for preparing for study:
(1) Isolated cells which are normally found tightly attached to neighboring cells
(2) Cells without a functional cytoskeleton
(3) Isolated org anelles
(4) Bone and other similar cells which are situated within a mineral framework

71. The cell structure that is the site of ATP synthesis is:
(1) Centrioles            (2) Lysosomes
- (3) Microtubule        (4) Mitochondrion

72. The following cell structure contains powerful hydrolytic enzymes capable of digesting a wide range of materials:
(1) Centrioles               (2) Lysosomes      
(3) Microtubule           (4) Mitochondrion

73. Short sugar chains attached to proteins are known as:
(1) Cholesterol        (2) Glycoprotein
(3) Glycolipid            (4) Oligosaccharides

74. Fat molecules attached to proteins are called:
(1) Cholesterol           (2) Glycoprotein
(3) Glycolipid              (4) Oligosaccharides

75. The cell structure that is the site of ribosomal RNA:
(1) Cilia            (3) Chromatin
(2) Centrioles            (4) Nucleolus

76. The first transgenic plant was:
(1) Tobacco            (2) Pea
(3) Tamato            (4) Cotton

77. The bacteria generally used for genetic engineering:
(1) Bacillus            (2) Pseudomonas
(3) Clostridium         (4) Agrobacterium

78. In recombinant DNA technology a plasmid vector is cleaved by:
(1) Modified DNA ligase
(2) A heated alkaline solution
(3) The same enzyme that cleave the donor DNA
(4) The different enzyme other than that cleave the donor DNA

79. A virus takes over the _______ of the host cell when it reproduces:
(1) Mitochondria        (2) Nucleus
(3) Metabolic machinery    (4) Respiratory pathway

80. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the fungi:
(1) They are all absorptive heterotrophs
(2) They have cell walls made of chitin
(3) Mitosis takes place within the nuclear membrane
(4) They are all motile

81. Infectious RNA particle without protein coat:
(1) Viroid    (2) Virion    (3) Virusoid     (4) Prion

82. The black rust of wheat is a fungal disease caused by:
(1) Puccinia graminis tritici        (2) Melampsora lini
(3) Albugo candida            (4) Claviceps purpurea

83. The male gametophyte of a flowering plant is the:
(1) Pollen sac                (2) Microspore
(3) Microspore mother cell         (4) Pollen grain

84. Plants that produce only ovules or pollen are called:
 (1) Monoecious            (3) Dioecious
(2) Monogamous            (4) Bigamous

85. During oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria synthesis of ATP occurs due to:
(1) Oxidation of glucose by glycolysis
(2) Electrochemical proton gradient
(3) Oxidation of NADH to NAD
(4) Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl Co—A

86. “Sex—linked genes” refer to genes:
(1) Present in a particular sex
(2) Controlling secondary sexual characters
(3) Controlling both primary and secondary sexual characters
(4) Present on the sex chromosomes

87. Cancer causing genes are called:
(1) Operons            (3) Recons
(2) Oncogenes            (4) Mutons

88. Copper is associated with which one of the following mitochondrial enzymes?
(1) Cytochrome oxidase        (3) Catalase
(2) Succinic dehydrogenase        (4) Acid phosphatase

89. Proteins that are used only outside the cell are synthesized:
(1) In the mitochondria
(2) On the rough endoplasmic reticulum
(3) On the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(4) On free ribosomes

90. ‘A’ is an autosomal gene and is responsible for albino character. A male rat heterozygous for ‘a’ is crossed with a female rat of same genotype. How many of the Fl offspring will express ‘a’ phenotype (i.e., albino)?
 (1) 100%        (2) 50%    (3) 25%     (4) None of these

91. RNA molecules, capable of catalyzing a chemical
reaction such as self—splicing are known as:
(1) Isozymes            (3) Ribosomes
(2) Ribozymes            (4) Lysosomes

92. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is a generic trait that
is carried in the bacteria cell in:
(1) Chromosome        (3) Plasmid
(2) Intron            (4) Centromere

93. Which enzyme catalyzes the unwinding of DNA helix
during replication?
(1) Primase            (3) DNA—polymerase
(2) Topoisomerase        (4) Helicase

94. The enzymes involved in interconversion of relaxed and super coiled forms of DNA molecules are called:
(1) DNA hgases        (2) Topoisomerase
(3) Polymerases        (4) Exontcleases

95. Which of the following amino acids has single codon?
(1) lsoleucine            (3) Valine
(2) Tryptophaii        (4) Arginine

96. Where is the enzyme that catalyzes peptide bonding located?
(1) Largersub—unitofthe ribosome
(2) Smaller sub—unit of the ribosome
(3) Leader region of the m—RNA
(4) T—RNA

97. Syntonemal complex helps in:
(1) Gamete formation
(2) Recombination during cell division
(3) Production of enzymes during cell division
(4) Chromosomal movement towards poles

98. The intervening sequence of ‘gene’ is known as:
 (1) Cistron            (3)intron
(2) Exon            (4) Codon

99. Okazaki is famous for his studies on:
 (1) DNA replication        (2) Gene expression
 (3) Somatic mutions        (4)somatic hybridization

100. If a certain couple shows the probability of having only half of the sons haemophilic and only half of the daughters haemophilic the parents are likely to be:
(1) Haemophilic carrier mother and haemophilic father
(2) Hemophilia carrier mother and normal father
(3) Normal mother and haemophilic father
(4) Haemophilic mother and normal father
101. Initiation of polypeptide chain formation is always brought about at the site of a codon coding for an amino acid called:
(1) Isoleucine            (3) Phenylalanine
(2) Cystein            (4) Methionine

102. Which of the following is a mucopolysaccharide?
(1) Fibrinogen            (3) Chitin
(2) Y— globulin        (4) Hyaluronic acid

103. If the rate of translocation of food is slow then the rate of photosynthesis will:
(1) Remains the same        (2) Becomes double
(3) Decrease            (4) Increase

104. Digestion is:
(1) Conversion of large food particles into small food particles
(2) Conversion of small food particles into large food particles
(3) Conversion of food into protoplasm
(4) Conversion of non—diffusible food particles into diffusible food

105. The hardest part of a tooth is the:
 (1) Dentine             (2) Enamel
(3) Pulp             (4)Dental tubules

106. Curdling of milk in the stomach is due to the action of:
(1) Pepsin            (3) HC1
(2) Rennin            (4) None of these

107. Gastric digestion takes place efficiently in:
(1) Acidic medium        (2) Alkaline medium
(3) Neutral medium        (4) Highly alkaline medium

108. Where is bile produced?
(1) In gall bladder        (3) In liver
(2) In blood            (4) In spleen

109. Largest gland in human body is:
(1) Liver            (3) Pituitary
(2) Pancreas            (4) Thyroid

110. A person having high fever may be breathing faster than normal. The reason for this faster breathing is due to:
(1) Additional need of 02 for germs
(2) Mental worry of the patient
(3) High temperature of body
(4) Loss of appetite

111. The tissue respiration refers to:
(1) Inspiration            (2) External respiration
 (3) Internal respiration    (4) Expiration

112. During hibernation, the frog respires by:
(1) Lungs only
(2) Partly by lungs and partly by skin
(3) Both skin and lungs
(4) Skin only

113. The covering of lungs is called:
(1) Pericardium        (3) Perichondrium
(2) Pleural membrane        (4) Peritoneum

114. If the C02 concentration in the blood increases, the breathing shall:
(1) Increase            (2) Decrease
(3) Affected            (4) Stop

115. Anterior neuropore persists throughout the life in:
(1) Chick            (2) Amphioxus
(3) Frog and Amphioxus    (4) Chick, Amphioxus and frog

116. The grey crescent of frog’s embryo represents the future:
(1) Anterior side of the developing embryo
(2) Posterior side of the developing embryo
(3) Dorsal side of the developing embryo
(4) Ventral side of the developing embryo

117. Egg of eutherian mammals is:
(1) Centrolecithal         (2) Telolecithal
(3) Macrolecithal         (4) Microlecithal

118. Which of the following protein breakdown products of chick embryo is stored by its allantois?
(1) Ammonia            (3) Urea
(2)Amino acid            (4)Uric acid

119. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) derives its name from the fact that it stimulates the growth of ovarian follicle in the female. In male, its target cell is:
(1) Germ cells            (2) Sertoli cells
(3) Leydig cells        (4) Pachytene stage germ cells

120. The endoderm of gastrula leads to the formation of:
(1) Skeleton            (2) Muscles
(3) Thyroid and thymus    (4) Sense receptors

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