ssc question papers with answers 2022 CHSL LDC DEO examination 10+2 level

Staff selection commission will conduct national level written examination for the recruitment of Combined High Secondary level vacancies 2022 selection of the eligible candidates for the recruitment of lower Divisional clerk LDC and Data entry operator DEO posts will be based on through the written examination followed by typing test  / skill Test.

Tier I Exam from 7th January, 2017 to 8th February, 2017
in Two (2) (Shifts) i.e. First Shift from (10.00 AM to 11.15 AM) and Second Shift from (4.15 PM to 5.30 PM) on the first three days of the examination i.e. from 7th January 2017 to 9th January 2017; and thereafter
 in Three (3) shifts i.e. First Shift from (10.00 AM to 11.15 AM), Second Shift from (1.15 PM to 2.30 PM) and Third Shift from (4.15 PM to 5.30 PM) for the remaining period from 10th January, 2017 to 8th February 2017.

Tier 2 Exam Date : - 9 April 2017. 

All candidates who filled application form for the Higher secondary level 10+2 examination they are advised to solve previous year examination question paper , model sample paper for cracking this examination  . brought previous year solved question paper general Knowledge of different examination. Following general knowledge question were asked in UPPSC PCS examination 2017 .
Hope following question will be helpful in preparation of your general awareness .
ssc question papers with answers 2016 CHSL LDC DEO examination 10+2 level

UPPSC Combined upper subordinate service Preliminary examination 2016 GS Solved Question Paper with answer key
Uttar pradesh public service commission UP PCS Prelims 2015 Paper 2 general knowledge Question paper with answer sheet
Sammilit Rajya Pravar adhinasth seva bharti pariksha prashan patra with uttar kunji / uttar mala
Very important question paper Upcoming UPPSC examination for GS / General Knowledge / General awareness

SET D Series D CODE HRM 1 Subject General studies - !
Vishay Samanya adhyan – Time 2 Hours     maximum Makrs 200  
Total No of question 150

1 Who among the following was conferred the 49th Jnanpith Award by the President in November 2014?
(a) Dudh Nath Singh     (b) Ramesh Chandra Shah
(c) Mamta Kalia    (d) Kedar Nath Singh

2. According to a video released in February 2015, the terrorist organization Islamic State burnt alive a kidnapped pilot who belonged to
(a) Jordan (b) Israel    (c) Japan (d) Saudi Arabia

3. The 18th SAARC Summit was held on November 26-27, 2014 in
(a) Kabul (b) Kathmandu    (c) Colombo (d) New Delhi

4. Which one of the following States of India was the worst affected one by hailstorm in 2014?  
(a) Gujarat (b) Kamataka    (c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh

5. Charlie Hebdo magazine, recently in news, is published from
(a) Germany (b) Denmark (c) Australia (d) France

6. Salman Rushdie’s latest (2015) novel is
(a) The Enchantress of Florence
(b) Two Years At Months and Twenty At Nights
(c) Shalimar the Clown    (d) Fury

7. Prime Minister Narendra Modi addressed the 69th session of the United
Nations General Assembly in Hindi in New York on
(a) 25th September 2014    (b) 26tl September 2014
(c) 27th September 2014    (d) 28th September 2014

8. During his visit to India in September 2014, Chinese President Xi Jinping first went to
(a) Ahmedabad (b) Delhi    (c) Kolkata (d) Bengaluru

9. Who among the following was awarded ‘Sahitya Academy’ Award for
Hindi Language for 2014?
(a) Ramesh Chandra Shah    (b) Mamta Kalia
(c) Maitreyi Pushpa        (d) Dudh Nath Singh

10. Which one of the following gases was used as Chemical weapon recently in
Civil war of Syria?  
(a) Mustard gas    (b) Chlorine gas
(c) Methyl isocyanide gas    (d) Sarin gas

11. In which of the following countries FIFA World Cup matches were played in 2014?  
(a) Germany (b) Netherlands    (c) Brazil (d) Spain

12. U.S.A. has approved sale of ‘Drone’ to four countries recently. Which one of the following countries is i among the list of those countries?
(a) Malayasia    (b) Japan    (c) Singapore    (d) United Arab Emirates

13. Which one of the following facts about Agni-5 missile is correct?
(a) It can be fired from any place.
(b) It has firing range of upto 5000 km.
(c) It cannot be captured by Radar of enemies.
(d) It is not exclusively indigenous.

14. Who among the following warned China not to threaten small countries like Vietnam and Philippines on ocean related issues?
(a) Vladimir Putin (b) David Cameroon    (c) Barack Obama    (d) Angela Merkel

15. The “Andhra Pradesh Re-orgnization Bill’ was approved and signed by the
President in
(a) March, 2014 (b) February, 2014    (c) January, 2014 (d) April, 2014
16. The “Unorganized Workers Social Security Act” was passed in
(a) 2006 (b) 2007    (c) 2008 (d) 2011

17. Which one of the following is a part of the demographic feature of a population?
(a) Density of population (b) Standard of living (c) Sex-ratio (d) Rural-urban population

18. Increasing investment in human capital leads towards
(a) Proper utilization of resources    (b) Increase in productivity
(c) Development of skill        (d) All of the above

19. Which among the following has been selected as the cultural capital of SAARC region for 2015?
(a) Lumbini (Nepal)    (b) Bamiyan (Afghanistan) (c) Sarnath (India) (d) Dhaka (Bangladesh)

20. Which one of the following states has launched M.L.A. Adarsh Village Scheme taking the clue from Sansad Adarsh Village Scheme?
(a) Gujarat    (b) Haryana    (c) Madhya Pradçsh    (ci) Rajasthan  

21. In which of the following cities India’s second ‘Forensic University’ is proposed to be established?
(a) Lucknow (b) Varanasi (c) Agra (d) Rampur

22. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Industrial — SIDBI Finance
(b) Social Security — Bharat Nirman Measures
(c) Rural Credit - NABARD
(d) Rural – SJSRY Employment

23. Which one of the following refers to occupational structure of population?
(a) Number of persons living in the country.
(b) Size of working population.
(c) Distribution of working population among different occupations.
(d) Nature of different occupations.

24. Which one of the following does implement the Self-Help Groups (SHGs) — Bank Linkage programme?
(a) NABARD    (b) Commercial Banks (c) RRBs  (d) Co-operative Banks

25. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Janshree Bima Yojana — 200C
(b) National Rural Health Mission — 2005
 (c) MGNREGA – 2003
(d) Aam Admi Bima – Yojana 2007

26. Which one of the following is an adverse effect of population growth in an economy?
(a) Increase in the size of working population.
(b) Reduced size of holdings.
(c) Increasing unemployment.
(d) Reduced percapita availability oi food grains.

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27. Which one of the following is part of land reforms in India?
(a) Abolition of Zamindari System     (b) Ceiling on Land Holdings
(c) Tenancy Reforms            (d) Multiple Cropping Scheme

28. At present India’s population growth is passing through the phase of which one of the following?
(a) Stagnant population    (b) Steady growth    (c) Rapid high growth  
(d) High growth rate with definite signs of showing down

29. The share of women in employment  during 2013- 14 under Mahatma
Gandhi NREGA was  
(a) 40.6% (b) 45.2%    (c) 52.9% (d) 57.3%

30. Which one of the following is the primary sector of India’s economy?
(a) Agriculture        (b) Industry    (c) Cooperative    (d) None of the above

31. Which one of the following is the major feature of the Indian economy?
(a) A capitalist economy    (b) A socialist economy
(c) A mixed economy        (d) None of the above

32. Which one of the following was j included in the National Food Security Mission’s objective of increasing production?
(a) Oil seeds (b) Rice    (c) Wheat (d) Pulses

33. Which one of the following age groups is eligible for enrolment under “Sarva
Shiksha Abhiyan”?
(a) 6 — 14 Years (b) 6— 15 Years (c) 5 — 14 Years (d) 5 —. 15 Years

34. Green Revolution was the result of adoption of New Agricultural Strategy which .was introduced in 2O Century
(a) Fifties        (c) Seventies    (b) Sixties    (d) Eighties

35. National Rural Drinking Water Programme is one of the components of
(a) Social Protection Program    (b) Bharat Nirman
(c) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana
(d) Poverty Alleviation Programmes

36. Consider the following statements about positive results of MGNREGA:
1. Substantial increase in purchasing power of rural poor.
2. Reduction in bargaining power of labourers.
3. Reduction in migration to cities.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Only 1 and 3 are correct.
(b) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
(c) Only 2 and 3 are correct.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

37. Which one of the following is a component of ‘Bharat Nirman’ launched in 2005 — 2006?
(a) Rural housing (b) Drinking water (c) Rural sanitatkon (d) Rural roads

38. Amongst the following states of the country, the literacy rate in 2011 was lowest in
(a) Odisha        (c) Jharkhand    (b) Bihar    (d) Chhattisgarh

39. The Right to Education Act, 2009 aims at making a free and compulsory education a right for children upto
(a) Elementary level    (b) Secondary level
(c) Higher Secondary level    (d) Graduation level

40. The expansion of Urban India is a platform for
(a) Industrial growth (b) Modem Service Sector growth
(c) Creation of improved income opportunities
(d) All of the above

41. The function of haemoglobin in the human body is
(a) to transport oxygen (b) to destroy microbes  
(c) to prevent blood deficiency (d) to make iron useful

42. The ‘Black Hole’ was first made known by
(a) Hennan Bandy    (b) Megh Nath Saha
(c) S.. Chandrashekhar    (d) J.V. Narlikar

43. CNG is
(a) Compressed Natural Gas    (b) Cynogen Natural Gas
(c) Condensed Nitrogen Gas    (d) Controlled Natural Gas

44. Which one of the following types of mirror is used to see the traffic behind the car?
a. Convex mirror        B. Concave mirror     C. Plane mirror     D. Spherical mirror

45. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Sulphur dioxide — Teeth
(b) Fluoride  pollution - Bhopal gas tragedy
(c) Methyl  isocyanate – acid rain
(d) Ozone depletion. — Skin cancer

46. Full form of C.F.L. is
(a) Compact Fluorescent Lamp    (b) Centrally Fixed Lamp
(c) Chemical Fluorescent Lamp    (d) Condensed Fluorescent Lamp

47. Which one of the following solutions of electrolytes is used in the car battery?
(a) Sodium sulphate (b) Nitric acid
(c) Sulphuric acid(d) Potassium nitrate

48. India launched its Mars orbiter mission successfully from Sri Harikota on
(a) 23 September, 2013    (b) 24th October, 2013
(c) 25th October, 2013    (d) 5th November, 2013

49. The full form of www is
(a) Web Working Window    (b) Window World Wide
(c) World Wide Web        (d) World Working Web

50. Match List — I with List — II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I             List-II
A. Vitamin C        1. Night blindness
B. Folic acid        2. Ben-ben
C. Vitamin A        3. Anaemia
D. Vitamin B1     4. Scurvy

(a) 43 2 1    (b)23 1 4    (c) 4 3 1 2    . (d) 1 2 4 3

51. The l021 Indian Science Congress, 2015 was held in  
(a) Jammu (b) Jaipur    (c) Mumbai (d) Lucknow

52. Peeling of onions causes tears as onions release
(a) Sulphonic acid (b) Sulfenic acid (c) Amino acid (d) Carbolic acid

53. Which one of the following polymers is used for the production of non-sticky pans?
(a) Teflon    (c) P.V.C.    (b) Neoprene    (d) Gutta-Percha.

54. White revolution is related to
(a) Egg production    (b) Milk production
(c) Wheat production    (d) Fish production

55. In a pressure cooker food is cooked in shorter time because
(a) the boiling point of water increases.
(b) the boiling point of water    decreases.
(c) the food takes less heat.
(d) None of the above.

56. How many images will be formed if a point light source is placed between two parallel plane mirrors?
(a) Two (b) Four (c) Eight (d) Infinite

57. Green revolution is related to
(a) Millet production    (b) Pulse production
(c) Wheat production    (d) Oilseed production

58. The most commonly used material for making transistors is
(a) Aluminium (b) Silicon (c) Copper (d) Silver

59. Green house effect is enhanced in the environment due to
(a) Carbon monoxide    (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Oxygen        (d) None of the above

60. Which one of the following nutritional elements is not essential for the formation and strengthening of bones and teeth?
(a) Calcium (b) Phosphorus (c) Fluorine (d) Iodine

61. Einstein was awarded Nobel Prize for
(a) Theory of relativity    (b) Brownian motion
(c) Photo-electric effect    (d) Specific heat of solids

62. The first President of Indian National Congress was
(a) Dadabhai Naoroj I    (b) Surendra Nath Banerjee
(c) Omesh Chandra Banerjee    (d) A.O.Hume

63. Who among the following was the founder of Vikramshila University ?
(a) Gopal (b) Dharmapala     (c) Devapala (d) Mahipal

64. Who among the following established “Indian Society of Oriental Art”?
(a) Nihar Ranjan Ray     (b) Nirendra Mohan Mukherjee
(c) Abanindra Nath Tagore    (d) Barindra Kumar Ghosh

65. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Howrah Conspiracy Case — 1910
 (b) Victoria Conspiracy Case — 1914
 (c) Lahore Conspiracy Case —1916 & 1930
 (d) Kakori Conspiracy Case —1924

66. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Asiatic Society of Bengal — 1784 A.D.
 (b) Asiatic Society of Bombay — 1804 A.D.
 (c) Royal Asiatic Society of Great Britain — 1813 A.D.
 (d) Land Holders Society of Bengal — 1844 A.D.

67. Which one of the following polymers is used for making bullet-proof windows?
(a) Polycarbonates (b) Polyurethanes (c) Polystyrene (d) Polyamides

68. Who among the following invented ‘Gobar Gas’ system?
(a) C.V. Raman (b) J.C. Bose (c) C.B. Desai (d) H. Khorana

69. The common name of the chemical compound ‘Cholecalciferol’ is
(a) Bone Calcium (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin B (d) VitaminC

70. Vivekanand attended the ‘Parliament of World’s Religions’ held at Chicago
(a) 1872    (c) 1893    (b) 1890    (d) 1901

71. The revolutionary association “Abhinav Bharat’ was setup in 1905 in
(a) Odisha (b) Bengal    (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Maharashtra

72. Who among the following introduced gold coins for regular use in India ?
(a) Vim Kadphises     (b) KujulKadphises
(c) Kanishka         (d) Hermwes

73. Which one of the correctly matched?
(a) W.C. Smith — The Muslims of British India
(b) Khalid B. Sayeed — Pakistan Formative Phase
(c) Peter Hardy — Khilafat to Partition
(d) Mom Shaldr — Modem in India The Islam

74. Which one of the following inscriptions contains the name of Ashoka?
(a) Gujarra (b) Ahraura    (c) Brahmagiri (d) Sarnath

75. British East India Company lost the monopoly of Tea trade by
(a) The Charter Act of 1793    (b) The Charter Act of 1813
(c) The Charter Act of 1833    (d) The Charter Act of 1853

76. Famous medieval saint Shankardev belonged to
(a) Shaiva Cult    (b) Vaishnava Cult
(c) Advaita Cult    (d) Dvaita-advaita Cult

77. Who among the following is the author  of the book ‘The Problems of the Far
East’ ?
(a) Lawrence (b) Curzon    (c) Churchill (d) Lytton

78. The original name of Changez (Genghis) Khan was
(a) Khasul Khan    (b) Yesugai    (c) Temuchin (Tenurjin)    (d) Ogadi

79. Who among the following was not a part of tripartite struggle?
(a) Pratiharas (b) Palas (c) Rastrakutas (d) Cholas

80. At which one of the following Round Table Conferences held in London was
Mahatma Gandhi present?  
(a) First    (b) Second
(c) Third    (d) None of the above

81. In which one of the following sessions the congress declared its policy towards
Indian states for the first time?
(a) Nagpur session    (b) Gaya session    (c) Calcutta session (d) Lucknow session

82. “Kings are made for Public; Public is not made for the King.” Who among the following made this statement during the national movement?
(a) Surendra Nath Banerjee      (b) R.C. Dutt
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji        (d) Gokhale

83. The theme of Bankirn Chandra Chatterjee’s famous novel ‘Anand
Math’ is based on
(a) Chuar revolt (b) Rangpur and Dinajpur revolt
(c) Vishnupur and Veerbhumi revolt
(d) Sannyasi’s revolt

84. ‘Hali System’ concerned
(a) bonded labour    (b) exploitation of peasants
(c) untouchability    (d) illiteracy

85. Pheromones are generally produced by
(a) Snakes (b) Birds    (c) Bats (d) Insects

86. Match List — I with List — II and the correct answer using the given below the lists:
List — I             List - II
A. Minerals             1. Rainfall
B. Solar energy        2. Methane and Carbon dioxide
C. Biogas            3. Exhaustible
D. Deforestation        4. Inexhaustible

(a) 34 2 1    (b) 34 1 2    (c) 21 3 4    (d) 12 3 4

87. Which one of the following can provide both power and manures?
(a) Nuclear plants    (b) Thermal plants
(c) Biogas plants    (d) Hydroelectric plants

88. The first Gupta ruler to assume the title of ‘Parama Bhagawat’ was
(a) Chandragupta I    (b) Samudragupta
(c) Chandragupta II    (d) Ramgupta

89. The founder president of All India Kisan Sabha was
(a) Acharya Narendra Dev    (b) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
(c) Bankim Mukherjee    (d) Jayprakash Narayan

90. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Mountain    — Most stable ecosystem    (b) Abiotic Component— Bacteria
(c) Green Plants— Ecosystem        (d) Rainfall— Global Warming

91. According to World Health Organisation’s report of 2008, the number of diseases due to climate    change is
(a) 6    (b) 15    (d) 25    (c) 20

92. Which one of diesel crop?
(a) Cotton (b) Sugarcane (d) Potato  (c) Jatropha

93. ‘Chipko’ movement is related to
(a) Plant Preservation    (b) Project Tiger (c) Project Crocodile    (d) Plant Breeding

94. The Wildlife Protection Act was passed in the year
(a) 1965 (b) 1970    (c) 1972 (d) 1975

95. International Ozone day is celebrated on (a) 16th September (b) 7th December
(a) 16th September (b) 7th December (c) 30th March (d) 22nd April

96. Which one of the following is a biodiversity saturated area in India?
(a) Eastern Ghat (b) Western Ghat (c) Thar Desert (d) Bay of Bengal

97. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Wool — A protein        (b) Rayon — Modified starch
(c) Rubber — A natural polymr    (d) Fuflerene — An allotrope of Carbon

98. The main reason for the decrease in biodiversity is
(a) Habitat pollution     (b) Introduction of exotic species
(c) Over-exploitation    (d) Habitat destruction

99. The largest Botanical garden of the world is at
(a)  Kew (England)  (b) Paris (France)
(c) Howrah (India) (d)Tokyo (Japan)

100. Which one of the following has evergreen forest?
(a) Maiwa Plateau    (b) Eastern Ghat
(c) Western Ghat    (d) Chhotanagpur Plateau

101. Which Indian State has the highest area under sugarcane cultivation?
(a) Maharashtra    (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Andhra Pradesh    (d) Madhya Pradesh

102. The sudden burst of which of the following lakes was one of the major factors of flash flood in the Mandakini river in June, 2013 ?
(a) Chorabari lake (b) Hemkund lake (c) Kedar tal (d) Vasuki tal

104. The most significant aspect biodiversity is
(a) Food    (b) Drug    (c) Industrial use
(d) Maintenance of ecosystem

105. Which one of the followIng is a pollution indicator plant?
(a) Algae (b) Fungi    (c) Lichen (d) Fern

106. Which one of the following energy sources is the best in keeping environment  lean?
(a) Petroleum products    (b) Forest products  
(c) Nuclear fission        (d) Solar cells

107. Assertion (A) : Yamuna becomes a dead river between Dethi and Agra during most of the year.
Reason (R) : Yamuna is a non- perennial river.
 Select the correct answer from the  codes given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

108. Which one of the following states has the highest difference between literary rates of male and female according to the Census 2011?
(a) Kerala (c) Mizoram (b) Uttar Pradesh (d) Gujarat

109. Which one of the following is a Volcanic Island of India?
(a) Little Andaman (b) Little Nicobar (c) Great Nicobar (d) Barren Island

110. In India more than half bf the production of Soyabean comes from
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Andhra Praclesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Rajasthan

111. Which one of the following dams is built across Betwa river?
(a) Luv Kush Barrage (b) Rihand Dam (c) Sharda Barrage (d) Rajghat Dam

112. Which one of the following rivers is called theGanga of South?
(a) Cauvery (b) Krishna (c) Godavari (d) Narmada

113. Which one of the following coasts of India is located between Krishna delta
and Cape Comorin?
(a) Coromandel Coast (b) North Circar (c) Malabar Coast (d) Konkan Coast

114. Which one of the following is the highest volcanic mountain of the world?
(a) Mount Pinatubo     (b) Mount Kilimanjaro
(c) Mount Taal    (d) Mount Cotopaxi

115. Which one of the following is called the ‘Pearl of Siberia’?
(a) Baikal Lake (b) Great Bear Lake (c) Karda Lake (d) Lincanbur Lake

116. For the location of which one of the following industries, the availability of raw material is not the primary consideration?
(a) Iron and Steel (b) Sugar (c) Electronics (d) Cement

117. Which pair amongst the following is correctly matched?
(a) The queen of Adriatic sea — Rome
 (b) Lorraine coal fields — France
 (c) West Midlands — Birmingham
(d) Tula — Russia

119. Which ‘one of the following countries has the longest coastal line?
(a) India (b) Canada (c) Australia (d) Brazil

120. Which one of the following pairs is j  correctly matched?
(a) Boiling lake — Dominica    (b) Five Flower lake — Mangolia
(c) Red Lagoon — Bolivia    (d) Great Slave lake — Canada

121. To which of the following racial groups the natives of North America
(a) Austric (b) Caucasoid  (c) Mongoloid (d) Negroid

122. Which one of the following Articles of Indian Constitution vests in the
President of India the power to issue ordinances?
(a) Article 74    (c) Article 123 (b) Article 78    (d) Article 124    (2)

124. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of Bauxite?
(a) Guinea (b) Australia (c) India (d) Jamaica

125. Which one of the following is called as the ‘Land of Morning Calm’?
(a) Philippines (b) Japan (c) Taiwan (d) Korea

126. World’s largest reserve of Uranium is found in
(a) Australia (c) Canada (b) Brazil (d) South Africa

127. Which one of the following statements is true about right to information?
(a) It is a Political right. (b) It is a Constitutional right.
(‘c) It is a Legal right. (d) It is a Social right.

128. While deciding any question relating the disqualification of a member of Parliament, the President shall obtain the opinion of
(a) Chief Justice of India (b) Election Commission of india
(c) Attorney General of India (d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

129. Who among the following was the member of Lok Sabha during his Prime Ministership?
(a) Deve Gowda (b) I.K. Gujral (c) Chandrashekhar (d) Dr. Manmohan Singh

130. Who among the following was the Chainnan of the fourth State Finance
Commission of U.P.?
(a) J.L. Bajaj (b) S.A.T. Rizvi (c) T.N. Dhar (d) Atul Gupta

131. Which one of the following statements about a State Finance Commission is
(a) It is an Informal body. (b) It is a Constitutional body.
(c) It is an Administrative body. (d) None of the above.

132. Who among the following was the first Tribal Speaker of Lok Sabha?
(a) G.V. Mavalankar (b) G.M.C. Balayogi
(c) Manohar Joshi (d) P.A. Sangma

133. Eleventh schedule of the Constitution of India is related to
(a) Panchayati Raj (b) Municipality (c) Centre-State relations (d) None of the above

134. Who amongst the following is  considered to be the Father of ‘Local Self Government’ in India?
(a) Lord Daihousie (b) Lord Canning (c) Lord Curzon (d) Lord Ripon

135. Assertion (A) :‘ Under Article 368, the Parliament can amend any part of the  Constitution.
Reason (R) : The Parliament is the Supreme Legislative body elected by the people of India.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below: Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is, false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

136. Article 40 of the Constitution of India advises the State to work for
(a) Uniform Civil Code.
(b) Organisation of Village Panchayats.
(c) Constitution of Municipalities.
(d) Living wages for workers.

137. Who among the following constitutes “Finance Commission” to review the fmancial position of Panchayats?
(a) Chief Minister of’ the concerned State.
(b) Finance Minister of the concerned State.
(c) The Governor of the concerned
(d) Panchayati Raj Minister of the

138. The appointment of a Governor in a State is made as per the provision in the Constitution under article
(a) 153    (b) 154     (c) 155 (d) 156      

139. Who among the following shall have the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India in performance of his duties?
(a) Advocate General (b) Attorney General
(c) Additional Advocate General (d) None of the above

140. Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India has become the longest one. Reason (R) : The chapter on Fundamental Rights has been borrowed from the model of American Constitution. Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
141. Whicl one of the following is related to Union-State relations in India?
(a) Sarkaria Commission (b) Rajmannar Committee
(c) Indrajit Gupta Committee
(d) Punchhi Commission

142. The idea of preamble has borrowed in Indian Constitution the Constitution of
(a) Italy (b) Canada(c) France  (d) U.S.A.

143. Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended during the national emergency?
(a) Articles 14 and 15 (b) Articles 19 and 20 (c) Articles 21 and 22 (d) Articles 20 and 21

144. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court observed that Central Bureau of Investigation is a ‘Caged Parrot’?
(a) Rail Board Bribery Case
(b) Vineet Narayani Vs. Union India
 (c) 2G Spectrum Scam Case
(d) Coal Gate Scam Case

145. The Planning Commission has been abolished by the Prime Minister
(a) Narendra Modi (b) Morarji Desai (c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (d) I.K.Gujral

146. National Voters Day is celebrated on
(a) 15th January (b) 25th January (c) 15th February (d) 25th February

147. ‘Pivot to Asia’ is foreign policy of
(a) India (c) China (b) Japan (d) •U.S.A.

148. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Motilal Nehru- Nehru Report
(b) M.K. Gandhi- Champaran Movement
(c) S.C. Bose— Forward Block
(d) M.A. Jinnah— Khilafat Movement

149. Which one of the following features of citizenship in India is correct?
(a) Dual citizenship of the State and Nation.
(b) Single citizenship of a State.
(c) Single citizenship of whole of India.
(d) Dual citizenship of India and another Country.

150. In which Article of Indian Constitution, provision for ‘Fundamental Duties’ has been made by the 42’ Constitutional Amendment Act? Of the strategy of the
 (a) Article 50    (c) Article 52    (b) Article 51A    (d) Article 53

Answer key / Answer Sheet
1.d    2.a    3.b    4.c    5.d    6.b    7.c    8.a    9.a    10.d
11.c    12.**    13.d    14.c    15.a    16.c    17.b    18.d    19.b    20.a
21.d    22.d    23.c    24.a    25.c    26.a    27.d    28.d    29.c    30.a
31.c    32.a    33.a    34.b    35.b    36.a    37.c    38.b    39.a    40.d
41.a    42.c    43.a    44.a    45.d    46.a    47.c    48.d    49.c    50.a
51.c    52.b    53.a    54.b    55.a    56.d    57.c    58.b    59.b    60.d
61.c    62.c    63.b    64.c    65.c    66.c    67.a    68.c    69.b    70.c
71.d    72.c    73.b    74.a    75.c    76.b    77.b    78.b    79.c    80.b
81.d    82.c    83.b    84.a    85.d    86.a    87.c    88.c    89.b    90.c
91.b*    92.c    93.a    94.c    95.a    96.c    97.b    98.d    99.a    100.c
101.b    102.a    103.b    104.d    105.c    106.d    107.c    108.b    109.d    110.a
111.d    112.c    113.a    114.d    115.a    116.c    117.a    118.c    119.b    120.b
121.c    122.c    123.b    124.b    125.d    126.a    127.c    128.b    129.c    130.d
131.b    132.d    133.a    134.d    135.d    136.b    137.c    138.c    139.b    140.b
141.c    142.d    143.d    144.d    145.a    146.b    147.d    148.d    149.c    150.b

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SSC CHSL Exam Question paper and answer key for  2019- 2020 will be updated here after the Examination.

 Exam Date  
Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Level Examination, 2019 Tier-I (For left-over candidates) (CBE)* - 12-10-2020 to 26-10-2020

Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Level Examination, 2019 Tier-II (DES)- 14-02-2021 

Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Level Examination, 2020 Tier-I (CBE)* 12-04-2021 to 27-04-2021

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