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uptet solved question Paper answer key 2016 UPS JRT

Uttar Pradesh pariksha Niyamak pradhikari conducted a state level Uttar pradesh Teacher eligibility Test on 2 February 2016 at various examination center of all over Uttar pradesh.  Exam Regulatory authority of UP conducted UPTET examination in two shift. In morning shift from 10 and to 12:30 noon written examination was conducted for Upper primary Level  UPS for teaching class 6th to class 8th level . junior level of ucch Prathmik sikshak patrata pariksha question paper contains questions from Child Development and pedagogy , Hindi , English , Sanskrit, Urdu , Math, Science and social science . JRT paper 2 contains 150 Objective type questions. Pariksha Niyamak Pradhikari Up used four booklet Code for conducted the written examination of UP TET Paper 2 . Upjob.in brought exclusive question paper of Booklet Code W for our subscribed . SET X, SET Y, SET Z question paper and answer key with complete question paper solution will be updated here very soon . So all aspirant of of UPTET are advised to subscribe this page receiving updated answer  key , answer sheet, solved question paper of all other series and Primary level paper 1 question paper answer key.

Answer key will be published here  so keep on visiting for latest update of UPTET November 2016
 uptet solved question Paper answer key  2 February 2016 Upper primary Level UPS JRT
PART-I
CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND COGNITION
1. ______ is one of the methods of the graphic presentation of the frequency distribution.
(1) Diagram      (2) Histogram   (3) Monogram  (4) Holographic design

2. While teaching in general class atmost which psychological fact should be taken in attention?
(I) Teaching technique   (2) Physical capacity    
(3) Individual difference            (4) Family condition

3. Propounder of ‘Two-factors theory’ of transfer of learning was
(1) Thorndike (2) Spearman     (3) Judd (4) Guilford

4. Failing to retain or to be able to recall what has been learnt is called
(1) Recall (2) Forgetting            (3) Sensation (4) Memory

5. “The dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determine the unique adjustment to his environment”, is called
(1) Personality (2) Adjustment  (3) Sensation (4) Character

6. Normal males have XY chromosomes whereas normal females have:
(1) XX chromosomes               (2) XYY chromosomes
(3) XXX chromosome  s           (4) X chromosome

7. “That point on the scale of scores below which one-half of the scores &
above which one half of the scores lie” is called _____
(1) Mean          (2) Mode         (3) Median       (4) Standard deviation

8. Who propounded the theory of trial and error in learning?
(1) Pavlov (2) Hegarty  (3) Thorndike (4) Hull

9. According to ______, “Development of the child is the product of heredity
and environment”.
(1) Woodworth (2) GalTett      (3) Holland (4) Thomdike

10. “Psychology first lost its soul, then its mind and then it lost its consciousness, it still has behavior of a kind” was stated by:
(1) Tichner (2) Wundt               (3) Woodworth (4) McDaugall

11. Latency period in psychosexual development is related to the age
range of:          
(1) 2-5 years (2) 6 to puberty   (3) 18-20 years (4) 20-22 years

12. Psychosocial theory of was proposed by:
(1) Erickson (2) Freud              (3) Kohler (4) Watson

13. According to ______, Id, Ego and Super ego are the three components of personality.
(1) Bandura (2) Jung     (3) Adler (4) Freud

14. Which behaviorist considers that language is acquired like other
behaviors through operant conditioning?
(1) Watson (2) Skinner (3) Gutheri (4) Thomdike

15. Which of the following is not the measure of central tendency?
(1) Range (2) Mode     (3) Median (4) Mean

16 .I.Q. children having average intelligence will be between _______
(1) 50-59 (2) 70-89     (3) 90-109 (4) 110-129

17. Which of the following level of measurement is the best?
(1) Nominal (2) Ratio (3) Ordinal (4) Interval

18. Which of the following is not a projective test of personality?
(1) Rorschach Ink Blot Test                  (2) T.A.T.
(3) Word Association Test                    (4) 16 P.F.Test

19. Hierarchy of need theory was given by _____
(1) Watson (2) Maslow            (3) Kohler        (4) Pavlov


20. Which of the following is called the master gland?
(1) Thyroid gland          (2) Adrenal gland
(3) Endocrine gland      (4) Pituitary gland

21. ______ gave the concept of collective unconscious.
(1) Jung  (2) Freud       (3) Adler          (4) Sullivan

22. “Grapes are sour” is an example of
(1) Repression              (2)Regression (3)  Rationalization          (4) Reaction fonnation

23. Operant conditioning theory of learning was given by _____
(1) Pavlov (2) Thorndike          (3) Tolman (4) Skinner

24. According to Spearman (1904) the ability to reason and solve problems is known as
(1) s factor (2) g factor (3) specific intelligence (4) cultural intelligence

25. Bandura stated that children acquire responses through modeling, which is also known as ______
(1) Learning through practice                (2) Learning by insight
(3) Observational learning                     (4) Learning by reward

26. Which stage of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development is characterized by abstract logic and mature moral reasoning’?
(I) Sensori-motor stage (2) Pre-operational stage
(3) Formal operational stage     (4) Concrete operational stage

27. _______ is the sum total of innate personality characteristics.
(I) Similarity, (2) Continuality    (3) Heredity (4) Pugnacity

28. According to Psychologists through which of the following methods instincts can be transformed ?
(1) Correlation (2) Redirection (3) Merging (4) Renewal

29. Formation of concepts is a _____ process.
* (1) difficult (2) irregular          (3) periodical (4) cumulative

30. Which one of the following is not the cause of forgetting?
(1) Mental conflict                    (2) Lack of repetition   
(3) Degree of learning   (4) Ability of the teacher
Part 2 : Hindi  Questions 31 – 60
uptet solved question Paper answer key 2016 UPS JRT


Part 2 : English Questions 90-120
61. Write the name of the writer of the lesson ‘A Fellow — Traveler’.
(I) Ruskin Bond (2) C.E.M. Joad
(3) A.G. Gardiner (4) James Allen

62. Fill in the blanks with the correct preposition. She has been living _______ this city
ten years.
(1) for, to (2) in, for .  (3) to, for (4) on, to

63. Transform the following sentence by using ‘too’. Choose the correct alternative given below; She is over anxious for the safety of her son.
(1) She is too anxious that she wants the safety of her son.
(2) She is too anxious for the safety of her son.
(3) She is too anxious that her son may be safe.
(4) She is too anxious so that her son might be safe.

64. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
‘Atheist’
1), Rationalist (2) Theologist     (3) Believer (4) Ritualist

65. - Choose the word similar in meaning: Industrious
(1) Successful (2) Sensible        ,/(3) Punctual (4) Diligent

66. Change the following into indirect speech by choosing correct alternative
Our teacher said to us, “sugar dissolves in water.”
(1) Our teacher told us that sugar dissolved in water.
(2) Our teacher told us that sugar has dissolved in water.
(3) Our teacher said to us that sugar dissolves in water.
(4) Our teacher told us that sugar dissolves in water.

67. Choose the appropriate synonym of word OPULENT.
(l) Greedy (2) Hungry - (3) Heavy (4) Wealthy

68. Select the appropriate alternative which best expresses the meaning of
the following phrase:
To beat the air
(1) To make frantic effort
(2) To make effort that are useless or vain
(3) To act foolishly
(4) To make every possible effort

69. Select the appropriate synonym of word TRUNCATE.
(1) Cancel (2) Act cruelly         (3) Cut off (4) End swiftly

70. Choose the opposite of the word MASTICATE.
(1) Conceal (2) Chew   V (3) Review (4) Gobble

71. Select the antonym of underlined word - This frivolous remarks provoked no comments.
(1) serious (2) frantic    ./‘ (3) momentous (4) fanciful

72. Pedagogical knowledge includes
(1) knowledge of content          (2) knowledge of method
(3) both (1) and (2)                  (4) None of the above

73. What is the skill among the ones given below that cannot be tested in a formal written examination?
(1) Meaning of words & phrases           (2) Extensive reading for pleasure
(3) Analyzing text                                  (4) Reading for information

74. Drills are considered important in which method?
(1) Translation Method (2) Grammar Method
(3) Bilingual Method                 (4) Pattern Practice

75. Which of the following is a lexical word?
(1) Principal (2) If         (3) Some (4) Whether  

76. English is a ______ language in India.
(l) second (2) foreign    (3) first (4) global

77. ‘Shylock’ is a character in which play?
(1) Othello                                (2) The Monkeys Paw
(3) The Merchant of Venice      (4) Romeo and Juliet

78. Complete the following proverb:
The pen is mightier _____
(1) than the King (2) than the artist
(3) than the actor (4) than the sword/

79. The line ‘A thing of beauty is a joy forever’ has been written by which of the following?
(1) William Wordsworth (2) John Keats(3) Robert Frost(4) P.B. Shelley

80. Fill in the blank phrasal verb. It isn’t easy to days.
(1) train up   (2) Bring Up         (3) put up         (4) leave out

81. Pick out the comparative form of the sentence.
He is as wise as Soloman
(1) Soloman is wiser than he is
(2) Soloman is not wiser than he is
(3) He is wiser than Soloman
(4) Soloman is the wisest among them

82. Point out the figure of speech in the following sentence:
‘Here’s the smell of the blood still
all the perfumes of Arabia will not sweeten this little hand’
(1) Metaphor    (2) Hyperbole   (3) Oxymoron  (4) Personification

83. Who wrote ‘Some books are to be tasted, others to be swallowed, and some few to be chewed and digested’?
with the correct children now-a-
 (1) E.V. Lucas (2) V.S. Naipaul           (3) Francis Bacon         (4) E.M. Forster

84. Choose the incorrect part of the sentence given below
One of Mohan’s ambitions / (a) 
in life were to visit / (b)  
all the historic places / (c)
in the country. /(d)
(1) a     (2) b     (3) c (4) d       

85. Choose the correct part of speech of the underlined word.
It is a unique book.      
(1) Verb (2) Noun        (3) Adjective (4) Adverb

86. Fill in the blank with the correct preposition.
He killed two birds _____ one stone.
(1) by (2) at      (3) of (4) with

87. ‘Arms and the Man’ was written by which playwright?
(1) John Osborne         (2) William Shakespeare
(3) George Bernard Shaw ,‘     (4) Eugene O’Neill

88. Point out the active voice of the following sentence:
This notice has been altered.
(1) Alteration has been made in this notice by someone.
(2) Someone has altered this notice.
(3) Already the notice has been altered.
(4) The notice had been altered previously.

89. Fill in the blank using the correct prepositional phrase.
Shall we play indoors _____    
sweating out in the sun.?
(l) instead of (2) other than (3) but for (4) because of

90. Fill in the blank with an appropriate choice.
If you make a promise. you must be sure to _______ it.
.(l) accomplish (2) keep            (3) follow (4) succeed

Part 4 Math and Science 60 Questions

91. How will you find creative students in a class 7
(1) By giving mathematical question.
(2) By asking them to read a paragraph from a book.
(3) By asking them to tell new usage of an object.
(4) By asking them to mernorise a big chemical formula.

92. The speed of sound in air at N.T.P. is 332 m/s. If air pressure becomes four
times, then the speed of sound will be
(1) 166 m/s      (2) 332 m/s      (3) 664m/s (4) 1328m/s

93. Two magnetic lines of force
(1) intersect at the neutral point
(2) intersect near North or South Pole
(3) cannot intersect at all
(4) intersect according to the position of magnet

94. For which colour of light the focal length of a lens will be maximum?
(1) Violet (2) Blue        (3) Red (4) Yellow

95. 100 Newton force is applied perpendicularly on the surface of 10 em2, the pressure on that surface will be 
(1) 1 x 10 5 Newton/m2 (2) 10 x 10 5 Newton m 2
(3) 1 x l0 -5  Newton/ m 2 (4) 10 6 Newton/m

96. If the kinetic energy of a body is increased by 0.1%, then increase in its momentum will be
(1) 0.05% (2) 0.1%      (3) 1.0% (4) 10%


97. A force F = (5i+ 3j) Newton displaces a body by (2i — j’) metre.
The work done is
(1) zero (2) 7 Joule       (3) 12 Joule (4) 13 Joule

98. The temperature at which ferrornaetism vanishes and the substance becomes pararnagnetic, is called
(I) inversion temperature           (2) Boyle temperature
(3) Curie temperature               (4) Kelvin temperature

99. Each of the five capacitors shown in the given bridge circuit is of 10 iF connected with IOOV D.C. source. The equivalent capacitance between the points A and B is
(1) 4O.tF (2) 30p.F      (3) 2OpF (4) 10iF

100. Name the process used for purification of white bauxite ore containing no iron oxide as impurity
(I) Bayer’s process       (2) Hall’s process        
(3) Serpek’s process    (4) Hooves electrolytic process

101. Name an acid used for removing ink stains.
(1) Oxalic acid              (3) Formic acid (2) Acetic acid              (4) Malic acid

102. Recently discovered most stable allotropes of Carbon is
(I) C16 (2) C60 (3) C70(4) C56

103. Which among the following is amphoteric oxide?
(I) Sn O2         (2) CaO           (3) SiO, (4) CO2

104. Ant sting contains acid
(1) Ascorbic acid (2) Tartaric acid        (3) Lactic acid (4) Formic acid

105. What is the colour of the precipitate which is formed when aqueous
solutions of Sodium sulphate and Barium chloride are mixed?
(1) Yellow (2) White    (3) Green (4) Orange

106. Which one is least reactive?
(1) Iron (2) Copper (3) Silver (4) Gold

107. Which is not obtained by the destructive distillation of coal?
(I) Coalgas (2) Petroleum (3) Ammonia Liquor (4) Coal tar

108. The main function of phloem in plants is to
(I) Translocate food material (2) Repair the injured parts
(3) Transport water                  (4) Help in transpiration

109. In food chain herbivores are
(I) primary producers                (2) primary consumers 
(3) secondary consumers          (4) decomposers

110. Symbiotic association of algae and fungi is
(1) Funaria       (3) Marchentia              (2) Lichen         (4) Riccia

111. In ficus the pollination is affected by
(1) Insects (2) Air         (3) Water (4) Birds

112. Which is vestigial organ in man?
(1) Pinna muscles (2) Pinna       (3) Ileum (4) Teeth

113. Which organ is not helpful in respiration in mammals?
(1) Ribs            (2) Abdominal muscles (3) Diaphragm  (4) Larynx

114. Thromboplastin required for blood clotting is secreted by
(1) Erythrocytes (2) Platelets     (3) Monocytes (4) Lymphocytes

115. Entamoeba histolytica cause which of the following disease?
(1) Malaria (2) Dysentery         (3) Typhoid (4) Jaundice

116. Disease causing agent is known as
(I) Secretin (2) Prolactin (3) Amylase    (4) Pathogen    

117. While Science teaching many aspects of living things can be seen. One aspect is done at molecular level. It will be the base of the description of life—
(1) Newton’s Law
(2) physical description of the speed of planet
(3) interaction of material energy
(4) relation of the speed of planet

118. Underground animals to be protected in
(1) Terrarium (2) Vivarium (3) Aquarium (4) Zoo

119. The objective of microteaching is
(1) Teaching by using microphone for the benefit of deaf students
(2) To analyse the performance of trainee teacher and suggest feedback
(3) Teaching lessons in micro-parts for better understanding
(4) Micro-manage of students’ behaviour

120. A successful Science teacher is one who
(1) neglects the weaknesses of students
(2) develops inherent capabilities of students
(3) behaves over-friendly in the class
(4) punishes students to correct their mistakes

121. Mode of the given data:
25, 23, 22, 21, 24, 23, 25, 23, 22, 21.
23, 24, 23, 22, 23 is
(1) 23 (2) 22    (3) 21 (4) 24

122. If 2a + 3 b  and 2 n+2 – 3 b+1 = 5
then the value of a and b is
(1) 6,5 (2) 3,2  (3) 8,5 (4) 7,8

123. How many bricks will be required to construct a wall 3 m long, 1.5 m high and 0.4 m thick, if each brick measures 30cm x 15cm x 8cm?
(1) 502 (2) 550            (3) 500 (4) 501           

124.  519x519—81 x8l / 519x519+2x519x81+8lx81 is equal to
(1)73/200         (2)73/200         (3) 100/78        (4) 200/73

125 IF x -1/x = ½ then the value of 4 x2 + 4/ x 2 is
(1) 7     (3) —7 (2) 9     (4) —8

126. Factors of [1- 1/ (a-b)-2]
(1) (l+a—b)(1—a+b)               (2) (1+a—b)(1+a+b)
(3) (l+a—b)(l—a—b)              (4) (l-f-a+b)(1+a+b)

127. H.C.F. of two numbers is 9 and their L.C.M. is 270. If the sum of the numbers
is 99, their difference is equal to           
(1) 18 (2) 15    (3) 12 (4) 9

128. The difference between simple interest and compound interest on certain sum of money for 2 years at 5% per annum is 51, then sum will be
(1) 2l,000 (2) 20,550   (3) ? 21,500 (4) 20,400


129  (1) 3         (2) 32               (3) 33   (4)

130 (1) n/n+1   (2) 1/5n           (3) 1/3n            (4) 1/n

131. If sum of three consecutive multiple of 7 is 777, then least multiple will be
(1) 252 (2) 259            (3) 272 (4) 266           

132. If the perimeter of right-angled isosceles triangle is (4[ + 4) cm, then the length of the hypotenuse is
(1) 4cm (2) 6cm           (3) 8 cm (4) 10 cm

133. Edges of a cuboids are a, b, c,. its volume is V cubic units and its total
surface is S sq. units. Then 
(1) S(a+b+c) (2)  2S/ a+b+c
(3) a++c (4) 2S(a+b+c)

134. If a ± b + c 0, then a4. + b4 + c4 a2b2 + b2c2 + c2a2 is equal to
(1) 4 (2) 2        (3) 1 (4) 16

135. Given Pie-graph shows the cost of construction of a house. If total cost of construction is 15,00,000, the amount spent on labour is
(1) 90,000 (3) ‘ 3,60,000         (2) 2,50,000 (4) 3,75,000

136. If half of a number is equal to 0.07 times of another number, then their ratio will be
(1) 50:7 (2) 5:7 (3) 7:50 (4) 1:14

137. If (29)’ is divided by 28, then remainder will be
(1) 0 (3) 29      (2) 1     (4) 7

138. A bag contains 4 black balls, 6 blue balls, 3 white balls and 5 red balls. One ball is drawn from the bag. Probability that the ball drawn is black or white
(l)j (2) (3)i (4)             15

139. If 0 is the centre of a circle in given x and y is
(1) x—2y=O (2) y—2xO         (3) x+2y=180° (4) x+2y360°

140. The greatest among numbers and is          
(2) JTi  (3) JT   (4) Cannot be determined

141. To introduce the concept of fraction teacher can start with —
(1) to write the fraction in the form a of where b  0
(2) to introduce the fractional part of the things existing in the surrounding.
(3) to recognize the numerator and denominator in different types of fractions.
(4) to find out fraction on number line.

142. ‘From General to Particular’ principle applied in
(1) Deductive method   (2) Inductive method     (3) Synthesis method
(4) Analytical method   

143. Which objective of learning is fulfilled to understand the concept and principles of mathematics?
(1) Skill                        (2) Previous knowledge
(3) Observation            (4’ Percenticm

144. If a:b4:5,b:c6:9,
c : d=15 : 19, then a: b .: c:d is
(1) 8:10:15:19  (2) 10: 11: 15: 19         (3) 8:9:15:19    (4) 19:15:6:8

145. H.C.F.of and is    
(I) (2) 575        (3) (4) 255      

146. If two complementary angles are in the ratio 2: 3, then angles will be
(1) 25° 65° (7) 108° 72°          (3) 36°, 540 (4) 40°, 60°
147. ABCD is a rhombus.

30°, then ZADB is
(1) 30° (2) 120°           (3) 60° (4) 450

148. Difference of two natural numbers is always
(1) an integer    (2) a natural number      (3) a whole number       (4) a positive number
149. One factor of 2x2 — 9x — 26 is
(1) x+1 (2) x+2            (3) x+3 (4) x+4

150. 2 tables and 3 chairs together cost 2,000 whereas 3 tables and 2 chairs together cost 2,500. Then the total cost of 1 table and 5 chairs are
(1) 1,800 (2) 1,700      (3) 1,900 (4) 2,000

PART-IV(B) SOCIAL STUDIES & OTHER SUBJECTS

91. The distance between the Earth and the Moon is approximately
(1) 484000 kms (2) 384400 kms
(3) 340400 kms (4) 364400 krns

92. Which of the following rivers of India flows through a Rift Valley?
(I) Ganga (2) Narmada (3) Kaveri (4) Krishna

93. ‘Operation Flood’ is related to
(1) Flood Control                     (2) Milk Production
(3) Irrigation Development        (4) Soil COnservation

94. The CORE of the Interior of the Earth is made up of which of the following elements ?
(1) Silica and Aluminium           (2) Silica and Magnesium
(3) Iron and Nickel                   (4) Silica and Iron

95. Which of the following is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere?
(1) Ionosphere (2) Troposphere           
(3) Ozonosphere (4) Stratosphere

96. Lord Macaulay is associated with
(1) Reforms of Army    (2) Abolition of Sati System
(3) English Education    (4) Permanent Settlement

97. The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was
(1) Sucheta Kriplani      (2) Rajkumari Anwit Kaur
(3) Nelli Sengupta         (4) Annie Besant

98. Which period is called as ‘Golden
Age’ in Indian History?
(I) Maurya period         (2) Vedic period
(3) Gupta period           (4) Vardhan period

99. Moti Masjid in the Red Fort at Velhi was built by
(I) Akbar (2) Jahangir   (3) Shahjehan (4) Aurangzeb

100. Which city was founded by Sikaridar Lodi?
(1) Allahabad (2) Secunderabad           (3) Kanpur (4) Agra

101. Who among the following founded the Vikramsila Mahavihara, a great centre
of education?
(1) Dharmapala (2) Gopala       (3) Harsha (4) Baladitya

102. Kalibana is in which State?
(1) Gujarat (2) Punjab (3) Rajasthan (4) Haryana

103. Who established the Ram Krishna Mission?
(1) Dayanand Saraswati            (2) Swami Vivekanand
(3) Raja Ram Mohan Roy         (4) Dadabhai Naoroji

104. Who presided the group which pursuit in the case against the soldiers oTAzad
Hind Fauj?      
(1) Bhulabhai Desai (2) Jawaharlal Nehru (3) Muhammad Mi Jinnah (4) C.R. Das

105. Curved shape bricks are found from which place of Sindhu civilization?
(I) Kalibanga    (2) Lothal         (3) Chanhudaro            (4) Harappa

106. Which States in India implemented  Panchayati Raj in 1959 for the first
time?
(I) Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh         (2) Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat
(3) Rajasthan and Bihar                        (4) Tamil Nadu and Kerala

107. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not
(1) Speaker of the Lok Sabha               (2) The President
(3) The Prime Minister              (4) The Parliamentaiy Select Committee

108. Irrespective of social and economic level, all Indians should have the right to vote.’ Who said this ?
(1) Mahatma Gandhi                 (2) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(3) B.R. Arnbedkar                  (4) Jawaharlal Nehru

109. Constitutional Government stands for
(1) Government according to the conditions of Constitution
(2) Government according to law         
(3) Democratic Government.
(4) All of the above      

110. How many members are nominated by the President in Rajya Sabha?
(1) 2     (2) 10               (3 ) 12              (4)        15

111. Evaluation is related to
(1) the skill development of the students            (2) the achievement of the students
(3) the interest of students                                 (4) the qualities of students

112. Classroom teaching should be
(1) Intense (2) One sided          (3) Interactive (4) Easy

113. Which is most important aid in the teaching of Social Studies?
(I) Lecture (2) Audio-visual      (3) Work-selection (4) Debate

114. The term curriculum in field of education refers to
(I) Methods of teaching             (2) Evaluation process
(3) Overall programme of school           (4) Text-material to be used in the class

115. TLM is not used in Social Studies
(1) Magnetic compass              (2) Globe
(3) Map                                   (4) Napier Strips

116. In which of the following climatic regions are the Eskimos found?
(1) Tundra region                      (2) Equatorial region
(3) Mediterranean region          (4) West European region

117. Who among the following first gave the scheme of ‘Natural region’ of the
world?
(1) Humboldt (2) Hettner          (3) Hartshorne (4) Herbertson

118. ‘World Environmental Day’ is celebrated on
(1) 31 May (2) 21 March         (3) 5 June (4) 11 July

119. River carrying maximum sediment in the world is
(I) Amazon (2) Nile      (3) Brahrnaputra (4) Ganga

120. Which of the following is an example of Extinct Volcano?
(1) Kilirnanjaro (2) Vesuvius     (3) Krakatoa (4) Stramboli

121. Bunchy-top is a disease of
(I) Mango (2) Litchi      (3) Banana (4) Apple

122. Fertigation is related to     
(I) Pollination    (2) Fertilization (3) Hybridization           (4) Water & Fertilizer application

123. Unsuitable fruit for Jern making is
(I) Bael (2) Aonla         (3) Orange (4) Apple

124. How much percent of total soluble solid is found in jelly?
(1) 65 (2) 75    (3) 45 (4) 55   

125. Elements of Painting are
(1) Colour and Tone (2) Texture and Space (3) LineandForm (4) All above

126. Which are opposite colour?
(I) Red-Green (2) Green-Blue (3) Yellow-Red (4) Blue-Violet

127. Who was the grandfather of the Modern Indian Art?
(1) M.Fl-Iussain (2) Avanindra Nath (3) Amrita Shergil (4) Nandlal Bose

128. Select the correct sequence in chronological order:
(1) Pahari School, Mughal School, Bengal School, Company School
(2) Company School, Mughal School, Pahari School, Bengal School
(3) Bengal School, Mughal School,  Company School, Pahari School
(4) Mughal School, Pahari School, Company School, Bengal School

129. Which of the following Books was written by Sharang Dev?
(1) Sangeet Ratnakar    (2) Rag Manjari
(3) Geet Govind           (4) Sangeet Makarand

130. ‘Amad’ word is associated with
(I) Tabla (2) Gayan       (3) Sitar (4) Nritya

131. In which category Raga Peeloo exist?
(1) Shuddha                 (2) Sankeerna
(3) Both(l)&(2) (4) None of the above

132. ‘Whom’s subtitle is wrong?
(1) Wazid Au Shah — Akhtar Piya
(2) Samta Prasad Mishra — Gudai Maharaj
(3) Mahboob Khan — Daras Piya
(4) lnayat Hussain — Pran Piya

133. Which of the following has more calorie in food?
(1) Fat (2) Carbohydrate          (3) Protein (4) Minerals

134. Which of the following work is facilitated by muscle?
(1) To make body smooth and attractive
(2) In the movement of body
(3) Flowing of blood
(4) Allof the above

135. When should people exercise?
(1) After meal   (2) In the night 
(3) Empty stomach in the morning
(4) Whenever get chance

136. Where the brain is situated in human?
(1) Abdomen    (2) Pectoral girdle
(3) In Skull       (4) in mouth cavity

137. When was first Football World Cup held?
(1) 1872 (2) 1873        (3) 1876 (4) 1871

138. For which game Sayed Modi was awarded Indian National Award’ ?
(1) Badminton (2) Volleyball     (3) Football (4) Basket ball

139. How many circles are there in Olympic Flag?
(I) Three (2) Two         (3) Four (4) Five

140. How many players are there in Kabbadi ?
(1) Eight (2) Seven       (3) Nine (4) Twelve.

141. Freedom of speech and expression is not unlimited. It can be restricted on the basis of
(1) threat to national unity and integrity
(2) disobeying of Parliament and Judiciary or their contempt
(3) public order, decency and morality
(4) All the above

142. Which of the following subjects is not enumerated in the State list?
(1) Agriculture  (2) Law & Order
(3) Citizenship              (4) Land & Revenue

143. President can remove Governor on the basis of
(I) Misbehaviour/Misconduct                (2) Incapacity
(3) Violation of Constitution                  (4) Reasons for the removal of Governor have not been
mentioned in the Constitution

144. What is the maximum membership of a State Legislative Assembly?
(1) 400 (2) 500            (3) 450 (4) 550

145. Which of the following rights have been named as ‘the heart and soul’ of Indian
Constitution by Dr. B.R. Arnbedkar?   
(1) Right to Equality      (2) Right to Freedom
(3) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(4) Right to Religious Freedom

146. Sonalika is a variety of which crop?
(1) Maize (2) Barley (3) Wheat (4) Paddy

147. Seed rate of Bajra is
(I) 8kg/ha (3) 12kg/ha

148. Which method of irrigation saves maximum water?
(I) Drip irrigation method          (2) Furrow method
(3) Ring method                        (4) Flood method

149. The first critical stage of wheat is
(1) Heading stage (2) Milking stage       (3) Tillering stage (4) None of these

150. The branch of Soil Science which study the soil in context of plant growth is called as
(1) Ecology      (3) Pedology    (2) Geology (4) Edaphology

UPTET Answer key , Other Subject and other SET answer key will be updated here very soon


UPTET Exam Paper 2 answer key Booklet Code – SET W 2 February 2016 Upper Primary Level
Pedagogy Hindi English Math Science
Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans Q Ans
1.
31.
61.
91.
3
121. 1
2.
32.
62.
92.
4
122. 2
3.
33.
63.
93.
4
123. 3
4.
34.
64.
94.
3
124. 2
5.
35.
65.
95.
3
125. 2
6.
36.
66.
96.
1
126. 1
7.
37.
67.
97.
2
127. 4
8.
38.
68.
98.
3
128. 3
9.
39.
69.
99.
3
129. 4
10.
40.
70.
100.
3
130. 4
11.
41.
71.
101.
1
131. 1
12.
42.
72.
102.
2
132. 1
13.
43.
73.
103.
3
133. 2
14.
44.
74.
104.
4
134. 3
15.
45.
75.
105.
2
135. 4
16.
46.
76.
106.
4
136. 3
17.
47.
77.
107.
2
137. 2
18.
48.
78.
108.
1
138. 2
19.
49.
79.
109.
2
139. 3
20.
50.
80.
110.
2
140. 1
21.
51.
81.
111.
1
141. 2
22.
52.
82.
112.
1
142. 4
23.
53.
83.
113.
1
143. 2
24.
54.
84.
114.
2
144. 1
25.
55.
85.
115.
2
145. 2
26.
56.
86.
116.
4
146. 3
27.
57.
87.
117.
3
147. 1
28.
58.
88.
118.
2
148. 4
29.
59.
89.
119.
3
149. 2
30.
60.
90.
120.
2
150. 2

UPTET Question paper SET W  UPTET  Primary  level Exam Answer key Paper 1 all set official answer sheet 2016 Series-P Series-Q Series-R Series-S
http://upbasiceduboard.gov.in/TETMANUAl/answerKey/PRI_ANSWER_UPTET_15.pdf

 UPTET Upper Primary level paper 2 official answer key 2016 Series-W Series-X Series-Y Series-Z
http://upbasiceduboard.gov.in/TETMANUAl/answerKey/UPPRI_ANSWER_UPTET_15.pdf
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